Check Point 156-215.81.20 Practice Exams
Last updated on Oct 22,2026- Exam Code: 156-215.81.20
- Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20
- Certification Provider: Check Point
- Latest update: Oct 22,2026
Question #311
What is the purpose of the CPCA process?
- A . Monitoring the status of processes
- B . Sending and receiving logs
- C . Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server
- D . Generating and modifying certificates
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The purpose of the CPCA process is generating and modifying certificates. CPCA stands for Check Point Certificate Authority and it is a process that runs on the Security Management Server or Log Server. It is responsible for creating and managing certificates for internal communication between Check Point components, such as SIC.
Reference: [Check Point R81 Quantum Security Management Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 Quantum Security Gateway Guide]
D
Explanation:
The purpose of the CPCA process is generating and modifying certificates. CPCA stands for Check Point Certificate Authority and it is a process that runs on the Security Management Server or Log Server. It is responsible for creating and managing certificates for internal communication between Check Point components, such as SIC.
Reference: [Check Point R81 Quantum Security Management Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 Quantum Security Gateway Guide]
Question #312
Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?
- A . RADIUS
- B . Check Point password
- C . Security questions
- D . SecurID
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Security questions are not an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole4. The available authentication schemes are Check Point password, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID, LDAP, and Certificate.
Reference: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide
C
Explanation:
Security questions are not an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole4. The available authentication schemes are Check Point password, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID, LDAP, and Certificate.
Reference: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide
Question #313
What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?
- A . ifconfig -a
- B . show interfaces
- C . show interfaces detail
- D . show configuration interface
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH is show configuration interface3. This command displays the interface name, IP address, netmask, state, MTU, and other parameters for each interface. ifconfig -a, show interfaces, and show interfaces detail are not valid commands in Gaia CLISH.
Reference: How to configure static routes in CLISH on Gaia OS and IPSO OS, GAIA CLISH Commands – Fir3net, Gaia Administration Guide R80 – Check Point Software, Gaia Clish commands including User Defined (Extended) commands
D
Explanation:
The BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH is show configuration interface3. This command displays the interface name, IP address, netmask, state, MTU, and other parameters for each interface. ifconfig -a, show interfaces, and show interfaces detail are not valid commands in Gaia CLISH.
Reference: How to configure static routes in CLISH on Gaia OS and IPSO OS, GAIA CLISH Commands – Fir3net, Gaia Administration Guide R80 – Check Point Software, Gaia Clish commands including User Defined (Extended) commands
Question #314
Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.
- A . There are two default users and neither can be deleted.
- B . There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.
- C . There is one default user that can be deleted.
- D . There is one default user that cannot be deleted.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
There are two default users on Gaia Platform and neither can be deleted. The two default users are admin and monitor. The admin user has full access to the Gaia configuration and management tools, such as CLI and WebUI. The monitor user has read-only access to the Gaia configuration and management tools, and can only view the system status and settings. These two users cannot be deleted, but their passwords can be changed.
Reference: [Gaia Administration Guide], [Gaia Overview]
A
Explanation:
There are two default users on Gaia Platform and neither can be deleted. The two default users are admin and monitor. The admin user has full access to the Gaia configuration and management tools, such as CLI and WebUI. The monitor user has read-only access to the Gaia configuration and management tools, and can only view the system status and settings. These two users cannot be deleted, but their passwords can be changed.
Reference: [Gaia Administration Guide], [Gaia Overview]
Question #315
Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?
- A . Pre-shared secret
- B . Diffie-Hellman Public Key
- C . Symmetrical IPSec key
- D . Diffie-Hellman Private Key
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The key that is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN is a symmetrical IPSec key3. This key is used to encrypt and decrypt the data that is exchanged between the VPN peers3. The symmetrical IPSec key is derived from the shared secret and the Diffie-Hellman public keys that are exchanged during Phase 13.
Reference: Site to Site VPN in R80.x – Tutorial for Beginners
C
Explanation:
The key that is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN is a symmetrical IPSec key3. This key is used to encrypt and decrypt the data that is exchanged between the VPN peers3. The symmetrical IPSec key is derived from the shared secret and the Diffie-Hellman public keys that are exchanged during Phase 13.
Reference: Site to Site VPN in R80.x – Tutorial for Beginners
Question #316
What is a role of Publishing?
- A . The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public
- B . The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways
- C . The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways
- D . Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public is the correct answer. This is because publishing is the process of saving your changes to the database and making them available to other administrators. Publishing also allows you to install policies on Security Gateways.
Reference: [Publishing Changes]
A
Explanation:
The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public is the correct answer. This is because publishing is the process of saving your changes to the database and making them available to other administrators. Publishing also allows you to install policies on Security Gateways.
Reference: [Publishing Changes]
Question #317
Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?
- A . Publish database
- B . Save changes
- C . Install policy
- D . Activate policy
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The option that is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base is Install policy. Installing policy is the process of sending the security policy and the network objects from the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway1, p. 22. Publishing database and saving changes are options that are used to save changes made to a Rule Base, but they do not enforce them on the Security Gateway2.
Activating policy is not a valid option in SmartConsole.
Reference: Check Point CCSA – R81: Practice Test & Explanation, Check Point SmartConsole R81 Help
C
Explanation:
The option that is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base is Install policy. Installing policy is the process of sending the security policy and the network objects from the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway1, p. 22. Publishing database and saving changes are options that are used to save changes made to a Rule Base, but they do not enforce them on the Security Gateway2.
Activating policy is not a valid option in SmartConsole.
Reference: Check Point CCSA – R81: Practice Test & Explanation, Check Point SmartConsole R81 Help
Question #318
Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?
- A . Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command
- B . Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application
- C . Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+
- D . Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because sending API commands over an http connection using web-services is not one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s3. The Management API’s support HTTPS protocol only, not HTTP3. The other methods are valid ways to communicate using the Management API’s3.
Reference: Check Point Learning and Training Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because sending API commands over an http connection using web-services is not one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s3. The Management API’s support HTTPS protocol only, not HTTP3. The other methods are valid ways to communicate using the Management API’s3.
Reference: Check Point Learning and Training Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Question #319
Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?
- A . Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161
- B . Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116
- C . Quicker than Full sync
- D . Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The statement that is not true about Delta synchronization is that it uses UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161. The correct port number for Delta synchronization is 811612. The other statements are true about Delta synchronization.
Reference: ClusterXL Administration Guide R81, Check Point CCSA – R81: Practice Test & Explanation
A
Explanation:
The statement that is not true about Delta synchronization is that it uses UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161. The correct port number for Delta synchronization is 811612. The other statements are true about Delta synchronization.
Reference: ClusterXL Administration Guide R81, Check Point CCSA – R81: Practice Test & Explanation
Question #320
Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.
- A . Symmetric routing
- B . Failovers
- C . Asymmetric routing
- D . Anti-Spoofing
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent failovers in an Active-Active cluster. The SDF ensures that the same cluster member handles all connections that belong to a certain session. If the SDF is not enabled, different cluster members may handle different connections of the same session, which may cause a failover or a drop12.
Reference: ClusterXL Administration Guide R81, Check Point CCSA – R81: Practice Test & Explanation
B
Explanation:
The Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent failovers in an Active-Active cluster. The SDF ensures that the same cluster member handles all connections that belong to a certain session. If the SDF is not enabled, different cluster members may handle different connections of the same session, which may cause a failover or a drop12.
Reference: ClusterXL Administration Guide R81, Check Point CCSA – R81: Practice Test & Explanation