Check Point 156-215.81.20 Practice Exams
Last updated on Oct 22,2026- Exam Code: 156-215.81.20
- Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20
- Certification Provider: Check Point
- Latest update: Oct 22,2026
Question #301
SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following
- A . Security Policy Management and Log Analysis
- B . Security Policy Management. Log Analysis. System Health Monitoring. Multi-Domain Security Management.
- C . Security Policy Management Log Analysis and System Health Monitoring
- D . Security Policy Management. Threat Prevention rules. System Health Monitoring and Multi-Domain Security Management.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as Security Policy Management and Log Analysis. Security Policy Management is the process of defining and enforcing rules that control the access and protection of network resources. Log Analysis is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on log data that is generated by network devices and applications. SmartConsole is a unified graphical user interface that allows administrators to manage multiple security functions from a single console. The other options are not part of SmartConsole, but rather separate software blades or features that can be integrated with SmartConsole.
A
Explanation:
SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as Security Policy Management and Log Analysis. Security Policy Management is the process of defining and enforcing rules that control the access and protection of network resources. Log Analysis is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on log data that is generated by network devices and applications. SmartConsole is a unified graphical user interface that allows administrators to manage multiple security functions from a single console. The other options are not part of SmartConsole, but rather separate software blades or features that can be integrated with SmartConsole.
Question #302
Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?
- A . No, only one can be connected
- B . Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time
- C . Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators
- D . Yes, but only one has the right to write
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Multiple administrators can connect to a Security Management Server at the same time, and each administrator has their own username and works in a session that is independent of other administrators1. This allows concurrent administration and prevents conflicts between different administrators. The other options are incorrect. Only one administrator can be connected is false. All administrators can modify a network object at the same time is false, as only one administrator can lock and edit an object at a time. Only one has the right to write is false, as all administrators have write permissions unless they are restricted by roles or permissions.
Reference: Security Management Server – Check Point Software
C
Explanation:
Multiple administrators can connect to a Security Management Server at the same time, and each administrator has their own username and works in a session that is independent of other administrators1. This allows concurrent administration and prevents conflicts between different administrators. The other options are incorrect. Only one administrator can be connected is false. All administrators can modify a network object at the same time is false, as only one administrator can lock and edit an object at a time. Only one has the right to write is false, as all administrators have write permissions unless they are restricted by roles or permissions.
Reference: Security Management Server – Check Point Software
Question #303
Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?
- A . Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats
- B . Proactively detects threats
- C . Delivers file with original content
- D . Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Threat Extraction delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed, such as macros, embedded objects, and scripts. This ensures that users receive clean and safe files in seconds12.
Reference: Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection, Check Point Threat Extraction
D
Explanation:
Threat Extraction delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed, such as macros, embedded objects, and scripts. This ensures that users receive clean and safe files in seconds12.
Reference: Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection, Check Point Threat Extraction
Question #304
When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?
- A . Any size
- B . Less than 20GB
- C . More than 10GB and less than 20 GB
- D . At least 20GB
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because the recommended size of the root partition for a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server is at least 20GB2. Any size, less than 20GB, or more than 10GB and less than 20GB are not sufficient for the SmartEvent server.
Reference: Check Point R80.40 Installation and Upgrade Guide
D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because the recommended size of the root partition for a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server is at least 20GB2. Any size, less than 20GB, or more than 10GB and less than 20GB are not sufficient for the SmartEvent server.
Reference: Check Point R80.40 Installation and Upgrade Guide
Question #305
Publish the policy.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working behind the Internet Security Gateway are:
Define an accept rule in Security Policy. This rule allows the traffic from your internal networks to pass through the Security Gateway.
Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP. This option translates the private IP addresses of your internal networks to a public IP address assigned by your ISP router. This way, your internal networks can communicate with the Internet using a valid IP address. Publish and install the policy. This step applies the changes you made to the Security Gateway and activates the security and NAT rules.
Reference: Check Point R81 Quantum Security Gateway Guide
Explanation:
The steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working behind the Internet Security Gateway are:
Define an accept rule in Security Policy. This rule allows the traffic from your internal networks to pass through the Security Gateway.
Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP. This option translates the private IP addresses of your internal networks to a public IP address assigned by your ISP router. This way, your internal networks can communicate with the Internet using a valid IP address. Publish and install the policy. This step applies the changes you made to the Security Gateway and activates the security and NAT rules.
Reference: Check Point R81 Quantum Security Gateway Guide
Question #306
Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.
- A . Command line interface; WebUI
- B . Gaia Interface; GaiaUI
- C . WebUI; Gaia Interface
- D . GaiaUI; command line interface
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Gaia can be configured using the command line interface (CLI) or the WebUI. The CLI is a text-based interface that allows you to configure and manage Gaia settings using commands and scripts. The WebUI is a graphical interface that allows you to configure and manage Gaia settings using a web browser. Gaia Interface and GaiaUI are not valid terms for Gaia configuration tools.
Reference: [Gaia Administration Guide], [Gaia Overview]
A
Explanation:
Gaia can be configured using the command line interface (CLI) or the WebUI. The CLI is a text-based interface that allows you to configure and manage Gaia settings using commands and scripts. The WebUI is a graphical interface that allows you to configure and manage Gaia settings using a web browser. Gaia Interface and GaiaUI are not valid terms for Gaia configuration tools.
Reference: [Gaia Administration Guide], [Gaia Overview]
Question #307
What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?
- A . Application Control, DLP
- B . Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.
- C . ACL, SandBlast, MPT
- D . IPS, Mobile Threat Protection
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Check Point technologies that deny or permit network traffic are packet filtering, stateful inspection, and application layer firewall1, p. 15-16. Packet filtering is a basic firewall technique that examines packets based on their source and destination addresses and ports2, p. 13. Stateful inspection is an advanced firewall technique that tracks the state and context of network connections and inspects packets based on their content and sequence2, p. 13. Application layer firewall is a firewall technique that operates at the application layer of the OSI model and inspects packets based on their application protocols and data2, p. 14.
Reference: Check Point CCSA – R81: Practice Test & Explanation, 156-315.81 Checkpoint Exam Info and Free Practice Test
B
Explanation:
Check Point technologies that deny or permit network traffic are packet filtering, stateful inspection, and application layer firewall1, p. 15-16. Packet filtering is a basic firewall technique that examines packets based on their source and destination addresses and ports2, p. 13. Stateful inspection is an advanced firewall technique that tracks the state and context of network connections and inspects packets based on their content and sequence2, p. 13. Application layer firewall is a firewall technique that operates at the application layer of the OSI model and inspects packets based on their application protocols and data2, p. 14.
Reference: Check Point CCSA – R81: Practice Test & Explanation, 156-315.81 Checkpoint Exam Info and Free Practice Test
Question #308
Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?
- A . Data Loss Prevention
- B . Antivirus
- C . Application Control
- D . NAT
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Bridge Mode is a deployment option for Check Point Security Gateway that allows it to act as a transparent bridge between two network segments, without changing the IP addressing scheme. Bridge Mode supports most of the security features, such as Data Loss Prevention, Antivirus, Application Control, etc. However, Bridge Mode does not support NAT, because NAT requires modifying the IP addresses or ports of the packets, which contradicts the transparent nature of Bridge Mode1.
Reference: Check Point R81 Security Gateway Technical Administration Guide
D
Explanation:
Bridge Mode is a deployment option for Check Point Security Gateway that allows it to act as a transparent bridge between two network segments, without changing the IP addressing scheme. Bridge Mode supports most of the security features, such as Data Loss Prevention, Antivirus, Application Control, etc. However, Bridge Mode does not support NAT, because NAT requires modifying the IP addresses or ports of the packets, which contradicts the transparent nature of Bridge Mode1.
Reference: Check Point R81 Security Gateway Technical Administration Guide
Question #309
Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the ________ is translated.
- A . Static; source
- B . Simple; source
- C . Hide; destination
- D . Hide; source
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
In Hide NAT, only the source IP address is translated to a different IP address4. This is used to hide a group of hosts behind a single IP address, usually the external interface of the Security Gateway.
Reference: Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide
D
Explanation:
In Hide NAT, only the source IP address is translated to a different IP address4. This is used to hide a group of hosts behind a single IP address, usually the external interface of the Security Gateway.
Reference: Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide
Question #310
Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?
- A . fwd
- B . fwm
- C . cpm
- D . cpd
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because the fwd daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands3. The fwm daemon handles the communication between the Security Management server and the GUI clients. The cpm daemon handles the communication between the Security Management server and SmartConsole. The cpd daemon monitors the status of critical processes on the Security Gateway.
Reference: Check Point Firewall Processes and Daemons
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because the fwd daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands3. The fwm daemon handles the communication between the Security Management server and the GUI clients. The cpm daemon handles the communication between the Security Management server and SmartConsole. The cpd daemon monitors the status of critical processes on the Security Gateway.
Reference: Check Point Firewall Processes and Daemons