ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Practice Exams
Last updated on Oct 21,2026- Exam Code: ISTQB-CTFL
- Exam Name: ISTQB-Foundation Level Exam
- Certification Provider: ISTQB
- Latest update: Oct 21,2026
Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PROJECT risk?
- A . A computation is not always performed correctly in some situations
- B . A system architecture may not support some non-functional requirements
- C . Team members’ skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work
- D . Specific modules do not adequately meet their intended functions according to the user
C
Explanation:
A project risk relates to potential issues that could affect the overall success of the project. Among the options provided, the risk that "Team members’ skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work" is clearly a project risk because it pertains to the potential failure of the project due to inadequate skillsets among the team. This risk affects the entire project’s ability to meet its objectives.
Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 1.4.2.
The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.
What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?
Defect detected date: 15 8.2010
Defect detected by: Joe Smith
Test level System test
Test case: Area 5/TC 98
Build version: 2011-16.2
Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, t click ENTER to continue to screen 2 Nothing happens, no system response at all.
- A . Add information about which web browser was used
- B . Add information about which developer should fix the bug
- C . Add the time stamp when the incident happened
- D . Add an impact analysis
A
Explanation:
The most important report improvement for the given incident report would be to add information about which web browser was used when the defect was detected. This information is relevant for reproducing and debugging the defect, as different web browsers may have different behaviors or compatibility issues with the web application. The other options are less important or irrelevant for the incident report. The developer who should fix the bug can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The time stamp when the incident happened is not very useful, as it does not indicate the cause or the frequency of the defect. The impact analysis is not part of the incident report, but rather of the risk assessment or prioritization process.
Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer, page 140.
In the newest version of payroll system number of changes were made. As a tester you got a task to perform regression and confirmation tests.
Which of the following project activities are related to confirmation testing?
- A . Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface
- B . Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function
- C . Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system
- D . Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven’t broken existing functions
B
Explanation:
Confirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is performed to verify that specific defects have been successfully fixed.
Option A: "Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface" would typically involve regression testing, not confirmation testing.
Option B: "Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function" fits the description of confirmation testing as it focuses on ensuring that specific issues have been addressed.
Option C: "Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system" is an example of regression testing, as it checks the overall system behavior after an update.
Option D: "Testing to ensure the adding of new functionalities haven’t broken existing functions" is another example of re (ISTQB not-for-profit association) (Udemy) it checks for unintended consequences of new changes.
Therefore, the correct answer is B 【 6†source 】【 9†source 】 .
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)
Confirmation testing is performed after:
- A . a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix
- B . a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible
- C . the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results
- D . a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed
D
Explanation:
Confirmation testing is performed after a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed. Confirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is the process of verifying that a defect has been resolved by running the test case that originally detected the defect. Confirmation testing is usually done before regression testing, which is the process of verifying that no new defects have been introduced in the software as a result of changes or fixes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Reference: ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.4.1, page 28; ISTQB® Glossary v4.02, page 15.
A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumenc characters, and its first character must be a letter As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID.
What is the number of partitions to cover?
- A . 7.
- B . 6.
- C . 5.
- D . 3.
A
Explanation:
To apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to the ID requirement, we need to consider each condition individually:
Length of the ID: Valid partitions (5-10 characters), Invalid partitions (less than 5, more than 10) = 3 partitions.
Type of characters: Valid partitions (alphanumeric), Invalid partitions (non-alphanumeric) = 2 partitions.
First character: Valid partitions (letter), Invalid partitions (non-letter) = 2 partitions. Adding these partitions, we get a total of 3 (length) + 2 (character type) + 2 (first character) = 7 partitions. Thus, the correct answer is A.
Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is TRUE?
- A . Refactonng is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code wntten to satisfy those tests.
- B . ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level.
- C . BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are directly written at unit/component test level.
- D . ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration process.
A
Explanation:
Test-Driven Development (TDD) emphasizes writing tests before code and includes refactoring as a key practice to improve both the tests and the code. This ensures that the codebase remains clean and maintainable. The ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 discusses TDD as a practice that includes writing tests first, coding to satisfy those tests, and then refactoring the code to improve its structure and readability while keeping the tests intact.
Which of the following statements about the test pyramid is TRUE?
- A . Each layer of the test pyramid groups tests related to a single non-functional quality charactenstic.
- B . The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within the layer tends to cover
- C . The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more maintainable a single automated test within the layer tends to be
- D . The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more isolated a single automated test within the layer tends to be.
B
Explanation:
The test pyramid concept suggests that there should be more low-level tests (unit tests) and fewer high-level tests (end-to-end tests).
As we move higher up the pyramid (e.g., from unit tests to integration tests to end-to-end tests), each test covers more production code.
Higher-level tests (like end-to-end) validate larger parts of the application, including multiple units and their interactions.
This aligns with the principle that higher-level tests provide broader coverage but are fewer in number and more expensive to run and maintain.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Chapter 5.1.6, Test Pyramid.
Which sequence of state transition stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting me life-cycle of a defect?

- A . S0->S1->S2->S3->S4
- B . S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1
- C . S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
- D . S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
C
Explanation:
The figure depicts the life-cycle of a defect using state transition testing. State transition testing is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions. The figure shows six states (S0 to S5) and seven transitions (T0 to T6). The correct sequence of state transitions that follows the figure is S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3.
This sequence represents the following scenario:
S0: The defect is not yet detected (initial state).
T0: The defect is detected by testing (event).
S1: The defect is reported and registered (state).
T1: The defect is assigned to a developer for fixing (event).
S2: The defect is being fixed by the developer (state).
T2: The developer fixes the defect and delivers a new version (event).
S3: The defect is verified by testing (state).
T5: The testing fails to confirm that the defect is fixed (event).
S5: The defect is rejected by testing (state).
T6: The defect is reassigned to a developer for fixing (event).
S1: The defect is reported and registered (state).
T1: The defect is assigned to a developer for fixing (event).
S2: The defect is being fixed by the developer (state).
T2: The developer fixes the defect and delivers a new version (event).
S3: The defect is verified by testing (state). The other sequences are incorrect, as they do not follow the transitions shown in the figure.
Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer], Chapter 4, page 40-41.
Which of the following activities is NOT a pan of the fundamental testing process?
- A . Archiving automation code
- B . Test status reporting
- C . Test process improvement
- D . Build release and maintenance
D
Explanation:
The fundamental testing process includes activities that are directly related to the planning, preparation, execution, and evaluation of tests, as well as the closure activities of the testing phase. Option D, "Build release and maintenance," falls outside the scope of the fundamental testing process as it relates more to software development and operations rather than specific testing activities. Options A, "Archiving automation code," B, "Test status reporting," and C, "Test process improvement," are all activities that can be part of or associated with the fundamental testing process. Archiving automation code is part of test closure, test status reporting is part of test monitoring and control, and test process improvement can be an outcome of test closure activities.
The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).
If the TAS is between 50k and 80k, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k by a value not greater than 40k, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.
Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k = 1000 euros).
Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?
- A . TC1 = 81 k; TC2= 97k; TC3=111k; TC4=118k
- B . TC1 = 40k; TC2= 46k; TC3=51k; TC4=53k
- C . TC1 = 79k; TC2= 80k; TC3=81k; TC4=82k
- D . TC1 = 90k; TC2= 110k; TC3=125k: TC4=140k
A
Explanation:
This answer is correct because equivalence partitioning is a test design technique that divides the input domain of a system or component into partitions of equivalent data, such that each partition is expected to produce the same output or behavior. Equivalence partitioning aims to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. In this case, the input domain of the TAS can be divided into four partitions based on the bonus rules: less than 50k, between 50k and 80k, between 80k and 120k, and more than 120k. The test cases in the answer belong to the same partition, which is between 80k and 120k, and they are expected to produce the same output, which is a bonus of 15%.
Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.1