ISTQB CT-PT Practice Exams
Last updated on Oct 21,2026- Exam Code: CT-PT
- Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester - Performance Testing
- Certification Provider: ISTQB
- Latest update: Oct 21,2026
Question #11
Which of the following performance script types measures network response times?
- A . GUI scripts
- B . API scripts
- C . HTTP scripts
- D . Protocol-level scripts
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Protocol-level scripts measure the actual response times of network requests, making them ideal for analyzing network latency, bandwidth issues, and server response times.
Option A (GUI scripts) measure user interactions, not network timing.
Option B (API scripts) measure API interactions but do not provide detailed network response time analysis.
Option C (HTTP scripts) measure web requests but lack low-level network insights.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 3.2: Types of Performance Test Scripts.
D
Explanation:
Protocol-level scripts measure the actual response times of network requests, making them ideal for analyzing network latency, bandwidth issues, and server response times.
Option A (GUI scripts) measure user interactions, not network timing.
Option B (API scripts) measure API interactions but do not provide detailed network response time analysis.
Option C (HTTP scripts) measure web requests but lack low-level network insights.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 3.2: Types of Performance Test Scripts.
Question #12
You are managing a project that is testing a system that manages a newly redesigned jet engine for heavy aircraft. Given the fact that this engine is specifically engineered to reduce noise, it is important that the software maintains enough thrust for lift for a period of 5 minutes without exceeding 87.5dB. The software must achieve this independent of other internal systems such as fuel or navigation management.
Given the risk for the ability of the aircraft to meet the noise abatement regulations while still being able to fly, when is the optimum time in the software lifecycle to apply the performance testing?
- A . Preferably during each phase in the lifecycle
- B . Preferably at the end of system testing
- C . Preferably during system integration testing
- D . Preferably at the end of unit testing
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Performance testing should be integrated into every phase of the software lifecycle to ensure that critical performance requirements (such as thrust-to-noise ratio) are met early and continuously validated.
Option B (End of system testing) is too late, as issues may be costly to fix at that stage.
Option C (During system integration testing) is useful but not comprehensive enough.
Option D (At the end of unit testing) is incorrect because unit tests do not assess overall system performance.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 1.2: When to Conduct Performance Testing.
A
Explanation:
Performance testing should be integrated into every phase of the software lifecycle to ensure that critical performance requirements (such as thrust-to-noise ratio) are met early and continuously validated.
Option B (End of system testing) is too late, as issues may be costly to fix at that stage.
Option C (During system integration testing) is useful but not comprehensive enough.
Option D (At the end of unit testing) is incorrect because unit tests do not assess overall system performance.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 1.2: When to Conduct Performance Testing.
Question #13
How does a load management console aid performance testing?
- A . It simulates user behavior.
- B . It enables senior management to monitor testing.
- C . It provides reports and graphs for analysis.
- D . It emulates virtual users.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A load management console is a tool that helps testers analyze and visualize test results, providing performance reports, graphs, and insights. This aids in understanding bottlenecks, response times, and throughput trends.
Option A (Simulating user behavior) is incorrect; load generators handle simulation.
Option B (Senior management monitoring) is not the primary role of a test console.
Option D (Emulating virtual users) is incorrect; that is the job of load injectors.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 4.3: Load Management Tools.
C
Explanation:
A load management console is a tool that helps testers analyze and visualize test results, providing performance reports, graphs, and insights. This aids in understanding bottlenecks, response times, and throughput trends.
Option A (Simulating user behavior) is incorrect; load generators handle simulation.
Option B (Senior management monitoring) is not the primary role of a test console.
Option D (Emulating virtual users) is incorrect; that is the job of load injectors.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 4.3: Load Management Tools.
Question #14
Which of the following is the best description of spike testing?
- A . It focuses on the ability of the system to handle loads that are gradually increased to reach the expected maximum.
- B . It focuses on the ability of the system to handle loads that are at or beyond the expected peak load.
- C . It focuses on the ability of the system to meet future efficiency requirements.
- D . It focuses on the ability of the system to respond to quick and extreme changes in load.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Spike testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates how a system responds to sudden, extreme increases or decreases in load. It is designed to simulate unexpected surges in user activity or workload, such as flash sales, viral events, or cyberattacks.
Option A (Gradual load increase testing) describes load testing, not spike testing.
Option B (Handling expected peak load) describes stress testing, which pushes the system to or beyond its limits but does not focus on sudden changes.
Option C (Meeting future efficiency requirements) relates to capacity planning rather than spike testing.
Spike testing helps to identify system bottlenecks, resource allocation issues, and performance degradation when traffic surges unexpectedly.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 2.2.3: Spike Testing.
D
Explanation:
Spike testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates how a system responds to sudden, extreme increases or decreases in load. It is designed to simulate unexpected surges in user activity or workload, such as flash sales, viral events, or cyberattacks.
Option A (Gradual load increase testing) describes load testing, not spike testing.
Option B (Handling expected peak load) describes stress testing, which pushes the system to or beyond its limits but does not focus on sudden changes.
Option C (Meeting future efficiency requirements) relates to capacity planning rather than spike testing.
Spike testing helps to identify system bottlenecks, resource allocation issues, and performance degradation when traffic surges unexpectedly.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 2.2.3: Spike Testing.
Question #15
What should be captured for batch processing performance metrics?
- A . Throughput and wait times
- B . Number of records deleted
- C . Average percentage of network latency
- D . Number of concurrent virtual users
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
For batch processing performance metrics, the two most important factors are:
Throughput C Measures the number of transactions processed over time.
Wait times C Evaluates delays in processing batches.
Option B (Number of records deleted) is irrelevant unless batch processing specifically involves deletions.
Option C (Network latency percentage) applies to real-time transaction processing, not batch jobs.
Option D (Concurrent virtual users) applies more to load testing rather than batch performance.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 2.2.4: Batch Processing Performance Testing.
A
Explanation:
For batch processing performance metrics, the two most important factors are:
Throughput C Measures the number of transactions processed over time.
Wait times C Evaluates delays in processing batches.
Option B (Number of records deleted) is irrelevant unless batch processing specifically involves deletions.
Option C (Network latency percentage) applies to real-time transaction processing, not batch jobs.
Option D (Concurrent virtual users) applies more to load testing rather than batch performance.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 2.2.4: Batch Processing Performance Testing.
Question #16
Which of the following is a major contributor to unreliable performance projections?
- A . Redundancy between the test and production environments
- B . Disagreement between the technical and business stakeholders during analysis
- C . Differences in the hardware between the test and production environments
- D . Business stakeholders setting unrealistic performance goals
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
One of the biggest contributors to unreliable performance projections is differences between the test and production environments. If test environments do not match CPU, memory, network configurations, and database setups in production, the results may not be representative of real-world performance.
Option A (Redundancy between test and production environments) is not a problem; it’s actually beneficial for reliability.
Option B (Disagreement between stakeholders) can affect planning but does not cause unreliable projections.
Option D (Unrealistic stakeholder goals) affects expectations but not the accuracy of projections.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 2.5: Test Environment Considerations.
C
Explanation:
One of the biggest contributors to unreliable performance projections is differences between the test and production environments. If test environments do not match CPU, memory, network configurations, and database setups in production, the results may not be representative of real-world performance.
Option A (Redundancy between test and production environments) is not a problem; it’s actually beneficial for reliability.
Option B (Disagreement between stakeholders) can affect planning but does not cause unreliable projections.
Option D (Unrealistic stakeholder goals) affects expectations but not the accuracy of projections.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 2.5: Test Environment Considerations.
Question #17
Which of the following is a static performance test?
- A . Usability test of the user interface
- B . Evaluation of the test execution skills of the testers
- C . Review of the network architecture
- D . Formal signature approval by the end users
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A static performance test is a non-execution-based review that analyzes system architecture, network configurations, and other elements that affect system performance before execution.
Option A (Usability test) is not a static performance test but rather a functional or UX evaluation.
Option B (Evaluation of testers’ skills) is unrelated to performance testing.
Option D (Formal signature approval) is an administrative task and not a static test.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 2.3: Static Performance Testing.
C
Explanation:
A static performance test is a non-execution-based review that analyzes system architecture, network configurations, and other elements that affect system performance before execution.
Option A (Usability test) is not a static performance test but rather a functional or UX evaluation.
Option B (Evaluation of testers’ skills) is unrelated to performance testing.
Option D (Formal signature approval) is an administrative task and not a static test.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 2.3: Static Performance Testing.
Question #18
Which of the following is considered a common database protocol?
- A . ODBC
- B . JUNIT
- C . SMP
- D . MMS
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
ODBC (Open Database Connectivity) is a standard database protocol that enables applications to connect to and interact with databases regardless of vendor specifications.
Option B (JUNIT) is a unit testing framework, not a database protocol.
Option C (SMP – Symmetric Multiprocessing) relates to CPU architecture, not databases.
Option D (MMS – Multimedia Messaging Service) is related to mobile messaging, not database communication.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 3.4: Database Protocols.
A
Explanation:
ODBC (Open Database Connectivity) is a standard database protocol that enables applications to connect to and interact with databases regardless of vendor specifications.
Option B (JUNIT) is a unit testing framework, not a database protocol.
Option C (SMP – Symmetric Multiprocessing) relates to CPU architecture, not databases.
Option D (MMS – Multimedia Messaging Service) is related to mobile messaging, not database communication.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 3.4: Database Protocols.
Question #19
Which of the following is a best practice to include in performance test scripts when verifying results?
- A . Increase the number of scripts executed to provide greater coverage.
- B . Verify that correct information was added to the database.
- C . Add transaction timers to collect response times.
- D . Hold the development team accountable for system performance.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
One of the best practices in performance test scripting is to validate that correct data is recorded in the database after execution. This ensures that performance issues do not impact data integrity.
Option A (Increasing the number of scripts) may provide more coverage but does not verify accuracy.
Option C (Adding transaction timers) is useful for performance monitoring but does not ensure correct data entry.
Option D (Holding the development team accountable) is a management responsibility, not a scripting best practice.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 3.6: Best Practices in Performance Test Scripting.
B
Explanation:
One of the best practices in performance test scripting is to validate that correct data is recorded in the database after execution. This ensures that performance issues do not impact data integrity.
Option A (Increasing the number of scripts) may provide more coverage but does not verify accuracy.
Option C (Adding transaction timers) is useful for performance monitoring but does not ensure correct data entry.
Option D (Holding the development team accountable) is a management responsibility, not a scripting best practice.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 3.6: Best Practices in Performance Test Scripting.
Question #20
Which of the following is a typical performance risk associated with mainframe architectures?
- A . Inconsistent loads when accessed via APIs
- B . Slow hard disk speed
- C . Misconfigured host machine
- D . Lack of RAM
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
One of the key performance risks in mainframe architectures is slow hard disk speed, which can impact transaction processing, batch jobs, and database access times.
Option A (Inconsistent loads via APIs) is more relevant to distributed or cloud architectures rather than mainframes.
Option C (Misconfigured host machine) is a configuration issue, not a typical performance risk.
Option D (Lack of RAM) is less common in mainframes, which typically use optimized memory management.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 2.7.3: Performance Risks in Mainframe Architectures.
B
Explanation:
One of the key performance risks in mainframe architectures is slow hard disk speed, which can impact transaction processing, batch jobs, and database access times.
Option A (Inconsistent loads via APIs) is more relevant to distributed or cloud architectures rather than mainframes.
Option C (Misconfigured host machine) is a configuration issue, not a typical performance risk.
Option D (Lack of RAM) is less common in mainframes, which typically use optimized memory management.
Reference: ISTQB CT-PT Syllabus, Section 2.7.3: Performance Risks in Mainframe Architectures.