EC-Council 312-38 Practice Exams
Last updated on Oct 22,2026- Exam Code: 312-38
- Exam Name: Certified Network Defender
- Certification Provider: EC-Council
- Latest update: Oct 22,2026
What is the IT security team responsible for effectively managing the security of the organization’s IT infrastructure, called?
- A . Grey Team
- B . Red Team
- C . Blue Team
- D . Yellow Team
C
Explanation:
In the context of cybersecurity, the Blue Team refers to the group responsible for defending an organization’s IT infrastructure. This team’s primary focus is on internal security measures, maintaining defensive protocols, and ensuring that the organization’s systems and data are protected against cyber threats. They are tasked with the effective management of security controls, incident response, and the overall maintenance of the organization’s cybersecurity posture.
Reference: The Certified Network Defender (CND) course by EC-Council includes modules that cover network security controls, protocols, perimeter appliances, secure IDS, VPN, and firewall configuration, which are all relevant to the functions of a Blue Team.
The CND curriculum also emphasizes the importance of understanding and responding to cyber threats, which aligns with the Blue Team’s role in an organization’s IT security framework.
Brendan wants to implement a hardware based RAID system in his network. He is thinking of choosing a suitable RAM type for the architectural setup in the system. The type he is interested in provides access times of up to 20 ns.
Which type of RAM will he select for his RAID system?
- A . NVRAM
- B . SDRAM
- C . NAND flash memory
- D . SRAM
D
Explanation:
SRAM, or Static Random-Access Memory, is known for its low access time, typically around 20 ns, which makes it suitable for applications requiring high speed, such as cache memory in computers or, in this case, a RAID system. SRAM is faster than DRAM because it does not need to be refreshed as often, which is why it’s used where speed is critical. Although SRAM is more expensive and has less density compared to other types of RAM, its speed advantage makes it the preferred choice for Brendan’s RAID system requirements.
Reference: The characteristics of SRAM are well-documented in computer architecture and hardware literature, aligning with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course’s focus on understanding different types of memory for network security purposes. The ECCouncil’s CND materials and study guides provide information on various hardware components and their relevance to network security, which includes the selection of appropriate RAM types for different systems123.
Which of the following RAID storage techniques divides the data into multiple blocks, which are further written across the RAID system?
- A . Mirroring
- B . Striping
- C . None of these
- D . Parity
B
Explanation:
In RAID storage, striping is the technique that divides data into blocks and spreads them across multiple drives in the RAID array. This method enhances performance by allowing the drives to read and write data simultaneously, effectively increasing throughput and speed. Unlike mirroring, which duplicates data across drives, or parity, which provides redundancy, striping solely focuses on performance by distributing data across the RAID system without redundancy.
Reference: The concept of striping is associated with various RAID levels, particularly RAID 0, which is known for its striping technique without redundancy1. This information aligns with the objectives and documents of the Certified Network Defender (CND) course, which covers RAID storage techniques as part of its curriculum.
The SNMP contains various commands that reduce the burden on the network administrators.
Which of the following commands is used by SNMP agents to notify SNMP managers about an event occurring in the network?
- A . SET
- B . TRAPS
- C . INFORM
- D . RESPONSE
B
Explanation:
In SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), the TRAPS command is used by SNMP agents to notify SNMP managers about certain events occurring within the network. TRAPS are unsolicited messages sent from an SNMP agent to the SNMP manager, alerting it of a significant event, such as a system reboot, link failure, or high CPU usage1. Unlike INFORM requests, which are acknowledged messages ensuring that the notification was received, TRAPS do not require an acknowledgment from the SNMP manager, making them less reliable but faster and more suitable for alerting in real-time scenarios2.
Reference: Cisco IOS SNMP Support Command Reference1.
Sending an SNMP Trap From the Command Line in Linux – Baeldung on Linux2.
Delta IT solutions suffered a substantial data loss translating into a huge monetary loss for them. While investigation, the network admin analyzed all the packets and traffic transmitted across the network and identified that some user, within the organization, had leaked the data.
Which of the following devices could have helped the network admin reach this conclusion?
- A . Internet Content Filter
- B . Network Access Control
- C . Network Protocol Analyzer
- D . Intrusion Detection System
C
Explanation:
A Network Protocol Analyzer, such as Wireshark, is a tool that captures and analyzes packets in real-time, displaying them in a human-readable format. It allows network administrators to inspect individual packets deeply, which is essential for identifying and investigating data leaks within an organization. By examining the packet contents, the source and destination of the traffic, and other details, a Network Protocol Analyzer can help pinpoint the exact nature and origin of a data leak.
Reference: The use of Network Protocol Analyzers for investigating data leaks is a standard practice in network security, aligning with the objectives of the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program. The capabilities of these tools are detailed in resources like the Wireshark user guide and network security best practices123.
Which among the following control and manage the communication between VNF with computing, storage, and network resources along with virtualization?
- A . Orchestrator
- B . VNF Manager(s)
- C . Virtualized Infrastructure Manager(s)
- D . Element Management System (EMS)
C
Explanation:
In the context of Network Function Virtualization (NFV), the Virtualized Infrastructure Manager (VIM) is responsible for controlling and managing the NFV infrastructure (NFVI), which includes compute, storage, and network resources. The VIM operates within one operator’s infrastructure domain and is a key component of the Management and Orchestration (MANO) framework. It ensures that the virtualized resources are appropriately allocated and managed to support the deployment and operation of Virtual Network Functions (VNFs).
Reference: The information aligns with the definitions and roles of VIM as outlined in the NFV and MANO framework documentation1.
Which of the following Event Correlation Approach checks and compares all the fields systematically and intentionally for positive and negative correlation with each other to determine the correlation across one or multiple fields?
- A . Automated Field Correlation
- B . Field-Based Approach
- C . Rule-Based Approach
- D . Graph-Based Approach
B
Explanation:
The Field-Based Approach in event correlation involves systematically checking and comparing all fields for both positive and negative correlations to determine the relationships across one or multiple fields. This approach is methodical and intentional, examining the data within each field and across fields to identify patterns and connections that may indicate security events or incidents.
Reference: The explanation is based on the principles of event correlation as described in network security literature and aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) objectives that focus on identifying and analyzing security events through various correlation methods.
Who acts as an intermediary to provide connectivity and transport services between cloud consumers and providers?
- A . Cloud Auditor
- B . Cloud Broker
- C . Cloud Carrier
- D . Cloud Consultant
C
Explanation:
The Cloud Carrier acts as an intermediary that provides connectivity and transport services between cloud consumers and cloud providers. They are responsible for ensuring that the cloud services are accessible to consumers via network, telecommunication, and other access services. This role is crucial in the cloud ecosystem as it facilitates the movement of data and services across the internet or other networks, making the cloud services available to users and organizations.
Reference: The role of the Cloud Carrier is discussed in various cloud computing resources. For example, Quizlet’s flashcards on “Chapter 9 – security in cloud computing” describe the Cloud Carrier as an intermediary providing connectivity and transport of cloud services from cloud providers to cloud consumers1. Similarly, the Cloud Accountability Project’s reference architecture outlines the Cloud Carrier’s role in transporting cloud services2. BMC Software’s blog also highlights the Cloud Carrier’s role in providing the necessary bandwidth and capabilities to connect consumers with providers3.
Which of the following type of UPS is used to supply power above 10kVA and provides an ideal electric output presentation, and its constant wear on the power components reduces the dependability?
- A . Stand by On-line hybrid
- B . Line Interactive
- C . Double conversion on-line
- D . Stand by Ferro
C
Explanation:
The type of UPS that is used to supply power above 10kVA and provides an ideal electric output presentation, while its constant wear on the power components reduces dependability, is the Double conversion on-line UPS. This UPS system works by converting the incoming AC power to DC to charge the batteries and then converting it back to AC for the connected equipment. This double conversion process provides a very clean and stable power supply, which is ideal for sensitive electronic equipment. However, because the power components are constantly in use, they tend to wear out more quickly, which can reduce the overall dependability of the system12.
Reference: The information provided is consistent with industry standards for UPS systems and their applications, particularly for power requirements above 10kVA. The double conversion on-line UPS is recognized for its ability to deliver high-quality power output, which is essential for critical systems and applications12.
Which of the following things need to be identified during attack surface visualization?
- A . Attacker’s tools, techniques, and procedures
- B . Authentication, authorization, and auditing in networks
- C . Regulatory frameworks, standards and, procedures for organizations
- D . Assets, topologies, and policies of the organization
D
Explanation:
During attack surface visualization, it is crucial to identify the assets, topologies, and policies of the organization. This involves mapping out all the devices, paths, networks, and understanding the security posture of each asset. By identifying these elements, organizations can determine where vulnerabilities may exist and how an attacker could potentially exploit them. This process helps in prioritizing security efforts and mitigating risks effectively.
Reference: The importance of identifying organizational assets, topologies, and policies during attack surface visualization is highlighted in security resources such as the OWASP Cheat Sheet Series1 and other security analysis literature23. These sources emphasize the need to understand the various entry points and potential vulnerabilities within an organization’s digital ecosystem as a fundamental aspect of attack surface analysis.