EC-Council 212-82 Practice Exams
Last updated on Oct 21,2026- Exam Code: 212-82
- Exam Name: Certified Cybersecurity Technician(C|CT)
- Certification Provider: EC-Council
- Latest update: Oct 21,2026
Kason, a forensic officer, was appointed to investigate a case where a threat actor has bullied certain children online. Before proceeding legally with the case, Kason has documented all the supporting documents, including source of the evidence and its relevance to the case, before presenting it in front of the jury.
Which of the following rules of evidence was discussed in the above scenario?
- A . Authentic
- B . Understandable
- C . Reliable
- D . Admissible
D
Explanation:
Admissible is the rule of evidence discussed in the above scenario. A rule of evidence is a criterion or principle that determines whether a piece of evidence can be used in a legal proceeding or investigation. Admissible is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be relevant, reliable, authentic, and understandable to be accepted by a court or a jury. Admissible also means that the evidence must be obtained legally and ethically, without violating any laws or rights. In the scenario, Kason has documented all the supporting documents, including source of the evidence and its relevance to the case, before presenting it in front of the jury, which means that he has followed the admissible rule of evidence. Authentic is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be original or verifiable as genuine and not altered or tampered with. Understandable is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be clear and comprehensible to the court or jury and not ambiguous or confusing. Reliable is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be consistent and trustworthy and not based on hearsay or speculation.
Charlie, a security professional in an organization, noticed unauthorized access and eavesdropping on the WLAN. To thwart such attempts, Charlie employed an encryption mechanism that used the RC4 algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer. Identify the type of wireless encryption employed by Charlie in the above scenario.
- A . TKIP
- B . WEP
- C . AES
- D . CCMP
B
Explanation:
WEP is the type of wireless encryption employed by Charlie in the above scenario. Wireless encryption is a technique that involves encoding or scrambling the data transmitted over a wireless network to prevent unauthorized access or interception. Wireless encryption can use various algorithms or protocols to encrypt and decrypt the data, such as WEP, WPA, WPA2, etc. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is a type of wireless encryption that uses the RC4 algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer. WEP can be used to provide basic security and privacy for wireless networks, but it can also be easily cracked or compromised by various attacks. In the scenario, Charlie, a security professional in an organization, noticed unauthorized access and eavesdropping on the WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network). To thwart such attempts, Charlie employed an encryption mechanism that used the RC4 algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer. This means that he employed WEP for this purpose. TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is a type of wireless encryption that uses the RC4 algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer with dynamic keys. TKIP can be used to provide enhanced security and compatibility for wireless networks, but it can also be vulnerable to certain attacks. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a type of wireless encryption that uses the Rijndael algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer with fixed keys. AES can be used to provide strong security and performance for wireless networks, but it can also require more processing power and resources. CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol) is a type of wireless encryption that uses the AES algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer with dynamic keys. CCMP can be used to provide robust security and reliability for wireless networks, but it can also require more processing power and resources
Camden, a network specialist in an organization, monitored the behavior of the organizational network using SIFM from a control room. The SIEM detected suspicious activity and sent an alert to the camera. Based on the severity of the incident displayed on the screen, Camden made the correct decision and immediately launched defensive actions to prevent further exploitation by attackers.
Which of the following SIEM functions allowed Camden to view suspicious behavior and make correct decisions during a security incident?
- A . Application log monitoring
- B . Log Retention
- C . Dashboard
- D . Data aggregation
C
Explanation:
Dashboard is the SIEM function that allowed Camden to view suspicious behavior and make correct decisions during a security incident. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a system or software that collects, analyzes, and correlates security data from various sources, such as logs, alerts, events, etc., and provides a centralized view and management of the security posture of a network or system. SIEM can be used to detect, prevent, or respond to security incidents or threats. SIEM consists of various functions or components that perform different tasks or roles. Dashboard is a SIEM function that provides a graphical user interface (GUI) that displays various security metrics, indicators, alerts, reports, etc., in an organized and interactive manner. Dashboard can be used to view suspicious behavior and make correct decisions during a security incident. In the scenario, Camden monitored the behavior of the organizational network using SIEM from a control room. The SIEM detected suspicious activity and sent an alert to Camden. Based on the severity of the incident displayed on the screen, Camden made the correct decision and immediately launched defensive actions to prevent further exploitation by attackers. This means that he used the dashboard function of SIEM for this purpose. Application log monitoring is a SIEM function that collects and analyzes application logs, which are records of events or activities that occur within an application or software. Log retention is an SIEM function that stores and preserves logs for a certain period of time or indefinitely for future reference or analysis. Data aggregation is an SIEM function that combines and normalizes data from different sources into a common format or structure.
FusionTech, a leading tech company specializing in quantum computing, is based in downtown San Francisco, with its headquarters situated In a multi-tenant skyscraper. Their office spans across three floors. The cutting-edge technology and the proprietary data that FusionTech possesses make it a prime target for both cyber and physical threats. Recently, during an internal security review, it was discovered that an unauthorized individual was spotted on one of the floors. There was no breach, but it raised an alarm. The management wants to address this vulnerability without causing too much inconvenience to its 2000+ employees and the other tenants of the building.
Given FusionTech’s unique challenges, which measure should it primarily consider to bolster its workplace security?
- A . Implement retina scanning at every floor entrance.
- B . Introduce an employee badge system with time-based access control.
- C . Station security personnel on every floor.
- D . Build a separate entrance and elevator for FusionTech employees.
B
Explanation:
Access Control:
Implementing an employee badge system with time-based access control ensures that only authorized personnel can access specific areas within the office, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
Reference: NIST SP 800-116, Guide to Enterprise Telework, Remote Access, and Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) Security.
Monitoring and Accountability:
The badge system provides a log of entries and exits, which can be monitored to detect any unusual activity. This enhances security and accountability within the organization.
Reference: ISO/IEC 27002:2013, Information technology ― Security techniques ― Code of practice for information security controls.
Minimal Inconvenience:
The badge system is minimally invasive and does not cause significant inconvenience to employees or other tenants in the building, making it a practical solution.
Reference: CIS Controls, Control 14 – Controlled Access Based on the Need to Know.
Enhanced Security Measures:
Time-based access control ensures that employees can only access the building during their designated working hours, further reducing the risk of unauthorized access during off-hours.
Reference: SANS Institute’s Guide to Physical Security Controls.
Given the need for enhanced security without causing too much inconvenience, an employee badge system with time-based access control is the most effective measure for FusionTech.
GlobalTech, a multinational corporation with over 10.000employees, has seen a surge in mobile device usage among its workforce. The IT department Is tasked with deploying a robust mobile security management solution that caters not only to the security of data but also provides flexibility in device choices and keeps administrative overhead low.
Which of the following would be the best solution for GlobalTech?
- A . Mobile Application Management (MAM)
- B . Mobile Device Management (MDM)
- C . Unified Endpoint Management (UEM)
- D . Containerization Solutions
C
Explanation:
Unified Endpoint Management (UEM) Overview:
UEM solutions provide comprehensive management for a wide range of endpoints, including mobile devices, desktops, laptops, and even IoT devices. They integrate Mobile Device Management (MDM) and Mobile Application Management (MAM) functionalities.
Reference: Gartner’s Magic Quadrant for Unified Endpoint Management Tools.
Security and Flexibility:
UEM ensures robust security by enforcing consistent security policies across all devices. It supports various platforms (iOS, Android, Windows, macOS), offering flexibility in device choices for employees.
Reference: NIST SP 800-124, Guidelines for Managing the Security of Mobile Devices in the Enterprise.
Low Administrative Overhead:
By consolidating management under a single platform, UEM reduces the administrative burden. IT departments can deploy, manage, and monitor devices through a unified interface.
Reference: Forrester’s Total Economic Impact™ of UEM.
Data Protection:
UEM solutions provide advanced data protection features such as remote wipe, encryption, and secure access controls, ensuring the security of corporate data on mobile devices.
Reference: ISO/IEC 27001, Information Security Management.
Given GlobalTech’s need for robust security, flexibility in device choices, and low administrative overhead, Unified Endpoint Management (UEM) is the most suitable solution.
Rhett, a security professional at an organization, was instructed to deploy an IDS solution on their corporate network to defend against evolving threats. For this purpose, Rhett selected an IDS solution that first creates models for possible intrusions and then compares these models with incoming events to make detection decisions.
Identify the detection method employed by the IDS solution in the above scenario.
- A . Not-use detection
- B . Protocol anomaly detection
- C . Anomaly detection
- D . Signature recognition
C
Explanation:
Anomaly detection is a type of IDS detection method that involves first creating models for possible intrusions and then comparing these models with incoming events to make a detection decision. It can detect unknown or zero-day attacks by looking for deviations from normal or expected behavior
RAT has been setup in one of the machines connected to the network to steal the important Sensitive corporate docs located on Desktop of the server, further investigation revealed the IP address of the server 20.20.10.26. Initiate a remote connection using thief client and determine the number of files present in the folder.
Hint: Thief folder is located at: Z:CCT-ToolsCCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and VulnerabilitiesRemote Access Trojans (RAT)Thief of Attacker Machine-1.
- A . 2
- B . 4
- C . 3
- D . 5
C
Explanation:
3 is the number of files present in the folder in the above scenario. A RAT (Remote Access Trojan) is a type of malware that allows an attacker to remotely access and control a compromised system or network. A RAT can be used to steal sensitive data, spy on user activity, execute commands, install other malware, etc. To initiate a remote connection using thief client, one has to follow these steps: Navigate to the thief folder located at Z:CCT-ToolsCCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and VulnerabilitiesRemote Access Trojans (RAT)Thief of Attacker Machine-1. Double-click on thief.exe file to launch thief client.
Enter 20.20.10.26 as IP address of server.
Enter 1234 as port number.
Click on Connect button.
After establishing connection with server, click on Browse button.
Navigate to Desktop folder on server.
Count number of files present in folder.
The number of files present in folder is 3, which are:
Sensitive corporate docs.docx
Sensitive corporate docs.pdf
Sensitive corporate docs.txt
As the IT security manager for a burgeoning e-commerce company, you’re keen on implementing a formal risk management framework to proactively tackle security risks associated with the company’s rapid online expansion.
Given your focus one-commerce and the need for scalability, which risk management framework is likely the most relevant?
- A . ISO 27001 – Provides a comprehensive information security management system (ISMS).
- B . NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) – Offers a general, customizable approach.
- C . PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) – Targets credit card data security specifically.
- D . COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology) – Focuses on IT governance and control processes.
B
Explanation:
For an e-commerce company undergoing rapid expansion, the NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) is the most relevant risk management framework:
Customizability: NIST CSF is designed to be flexible and scalable, making it suitable for a growing e-commerce platform.
Comprehensive Approach: Covers identification, protection, detection, response, and recovery, which are critical for e-commerce security.
Industry Agnostic: Applicable across various sectors, providing a robust foundation for different security needs.
Guidance and Best Practices: NIST CSF provides detailed guidelines and best practices that help organizations develop a comprehensive security posture.
Reference: NIST Cybersecurity Framework: NIST CSF
Implementation of NIST CSF in e-commerce: SANS Institute
A global financial Institution experienced a sophisticated cyber-attack where attackers gained access to the internal network and exfiltrated sensitive data over several months. The attack was complex, involving a mix of phishing, malware, and exploitation of system vulnerabilities. Once discovered, the institution initiated its incident response process.
Considering the nature and severity of the incident, what should be the primary focus of the incident response team’s initial efforts?
- A . Implementing a communication plan to manage public relations and customer communication regarding the breach
- B . Notifying law enforcement and regulatory bodies immediately to comply with legal and regulatory requirements
- C . Isolating affected systems to prevent further data exfiltration and analyzing network traffic for anomalies
- D . Conducting a comprehensive system audit to identify all vulnerabilities and patch them immediately
C
Explanation:
Isolating Affected Systems:
Containment: Immediately isolate compromised systems to prevent further data exfiltration and limit the spread of the attack.
Minimize Impact: This step helps to mitigate ongoing damage and protect unaffected systems.
Analyzing Network Traffic:
Identify Anomalies: Analyze network traffic to identify any anomalies or patterns indicative of the attack. This helps to understand the attack vector and extent of the breach.
Gather Evidence: Collect evidence that can be used to trace the attacker’s methods and identify vulnerabilities.
Additional Steps:
After containment and analysis, the incident response team can proceed with notifying law enforcement, conducting a system audit, and managing public relations.
Reference: Incident response best practices: NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide
Strategies for cyber incident containment: SANS Institute
Top of Form
Bottom of Form
Zion belongs to a category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. He was instructed by the management to check the functionality of equipment related to physical security. Identify the designation of Zion.
- A . Supervisor
- B . Chief information security officer
- C . Guard
- D . Safety officer
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, as it identifies the designation of Zion. A guard is a person who is responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility.
A guard typically performs tasks such as:
Checking the functionality of equipment related to physical security
Monitoring the surveillance cameras and alarms
Controlling the access to restricted areas
Responding to emergencies or incidents
In the above scenario, Zion belongs to this category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility.
Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A supervisor is a person who is responsible for overseeing and directing the work of other employees. A supervisor typically performs tasks such as:
Assigning tasks and responsibilities to employees Evaluating the performance and productivity of employees
Providing feedback and guidance to employees
Resolving conflicts or issues among employees
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for overseeing and directing the work of other employees.
Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A chief information security officer (CISO) is a person who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the security vision, strategy, and program for an organization. A CISO typically performs tasks such as:
Developing and implementing security policies and standards
Managing security risks and compliance
Leading security teams and projects
Communicating with senior management and stakeholders
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for establishing and maintaining the security vision, strategy, and program for an organization.
Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A safety officer is a person who is responsible for ensuring that health and safety regulations are followed in an organization.
A safety officer typically performs tasks such as:
Conducting safety inspections and audits
Identifying and eliminating hazards and risks
Providing safety training and awareness
Reporting and investigating accidents or incidents
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for ensuring that health and safety regulations are followed in an organization.
Reference: Section 7.1