CSA Cert CCSK Practice Exams
Last updated on Oct 21,2026- Exam Code: CCSK
- Exam Name: Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge
- Certification Provider: CSA Cert
- Latest update: Oct 21,2026
In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?
- A . The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.
- B . The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.
- C . The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.
- D . The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.
D
Explanation:
In federated identity management, the identity provider (IdP) is responsible for authenticating users and making assertions about their identity to the relying party (which could be a service or application that trusts the IdP). The IdP and the relying party establish a trust relationship in advance, which allows the IdP to assert that a user is authenticated, often in the form of security tokens or assertions like SAML or OpenID Connect.
The IdP that authenticates users and makes assertions, not the relying party. The relying party does not make assertions to the IdP; the relying party relies on assertions made by the IdP. The IdP and relying party do have a direct trust relationship in federated identity management.
Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools?
- A . Virtualization
- B . Applistructure
- C . Hypervisor
- D . Metastructure
- E . Orchestration
Which statement best describes the impact of Cloud Computing on business continuity management?
- A . A general lack of interoperability standards means that extra focus must be placed on the security aspects of migration between Cloud providers.
- B . The size of data sets hosted at a Cloud provider can present challenges if migration to another provider becomes necessary.
- C . Customers of SaaS providers in particular need to mitigate the risks of application lock-in.
- D . Clients need to do business continuity planning due diligence in case they suddenly need to switch providers.
- E . Geographic redundancy ensures that Cloud Providers provide highly available services.
Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?
- A . The cloud consumer
- B . The majority is covered by the consumer
- C . It depends on the agreement
- D . The responsibility is split equally
- E . The cloud provider
CCM: In the CCM tool, “Encryption and Key Management” is an example of which of the following?
- A . Risk Impact
- B . Domain
- C . Control Specification
What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?
- A . To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment
- B . To reduce the cost of cloud services
- C . To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization’s goals
- D . To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers
C
Explanation:
Cloud governance establishes controls and policies that align with the organization’s goals for security, compliance, and efficient management in the cloud.
Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 2 – Cloud Governance]
What Identity and Access Management (IAM) process decides to permit or deny a subject access to system objects like networks, data, or applications?
- A . Authorization
- B . Federation
- C . Authentication
- D . Provisioning
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is
Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.
- A . False
- B . True
Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?
- A . The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.
- B . Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.
- C . The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.
- D . Object-based storage in a private cloud.
- E . The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.
In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?
- A . It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.
- B . Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.
- C . To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.
- D . To facilitate the eradication of malware.
C
Explanation:
Privilege escalation is a major cloud security risk because attackers can:
Gain administrative access to cloud environments.
Modify security configurations, disable logs, and exfiltrate sensitive data.
Expand the attack blast radius, compromising multiple cloud resources.
To mitigate identity escalation threats, security teams must:
Implement strong IAM policies with least privilege access.
Use Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and Just-in-Time (JIT) access.
Monitor IAM logs for unusual privilege escalations and lateral movements.
This is detailed in:
CCSK v5 – Security Guidance v4.0, Domain 12 (Identity, Entitlement, and Access Management) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) – IAM Controls and Privilege Escalation Prevention.