CSA Cert CCSK Practice Exams
Last updated on Oct 22,2026- Exam Code: CCSK
- Exam Name: Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge
- Certification Provider: CSA Cert
- Latest update: Oct 22,2026
Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?
- A . Local backup
- B . Multi-region resiliency
- C . Single-region resiliency
- D . High Availability within one data center
B
Explanation:
Multi-region resiliency enhances infrastructure resilience by distributing resources across multiple geographic locations, reducing the impact of regional outages.
Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 7 – Infrastructure & Networking]
Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?
- A . Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery
- B . Infrastructure Security
- C . Compliance and Audit Management
- D . Information Governance
- E . Governance and Enterprise Risk Management
Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?
- A . Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing
- B . Continuous Delivery and Deployment
- C . Secure Design and Architecture
- D . Secure Coding
B
Explanation:
The Continuous Delivery and Deployment phase emphasizes deploying applications securely, ensuring infrastructure security is prioritized during deployment.
Reference: [CCSK v5 Curriculum, Domain 10 – Secure Development Lifecycle]
ENISA: Which is not one of the five key legal issues common across all scenarios:
- A . Data protection
- B . Professional negligence
- C . Globalization
- D . Intellectual property
- E . Outsourcing services and changes in control
Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?
- A . Reduces the need for security auditing
- B . Enables consistent security configurations through automation
- C . Increases manual control over security settings
- D . Increases scalability of cloud resources
B
Explanation:
Infrastructure as Code (IaC) helps maintain consistency in security configurations through automation, reducing the likelihood of misconfigurations.
Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 7 – Infrastructure & Networking]
ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:
- A . Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company
- B . Resource isolation may fail
- C . Provider may change physical location
- D . Mass layoffs may occur
- E . Non-binding agreements put at risk
What primary aspects should effective cloud governance address to ensure security and compliance?
- A . Service availability, disaster recovery, load balancing, and latency
- B . Decision making, prioritization, monitoring, and transparency
- C . Encryption, redundancy, data integrity, and scalability
- D . Authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing
B
Explanation:
Effective cloud governance focuses on managing and overseeing cloud resources to ensure that security, compliance, and business objectives are met.
Key aspects include:
Decision making: Establishing clear processes for how decisions are made regarding cloud resource usage, security measures, and compliance strategies.
Prioritization: Ensuring that critical security and compliance risks are prioritized and addressed first.
Monitoring: Continuously monitoring cloud environments for security threats, performance issues, and compliance violations.
Transparency: Ensuring that governance activities are visible to stakeholders, enabling accountability and making it easier to demonstrate compliance with laws, regulations, and internal policies.
These aspects help organizations maintain control over their cloud environments while ensuring they meet security and regulatory requirements.
How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?
- A . It reduces hardware costs
- B . It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead
- C . It locks down access and provides stronger data security
- D . It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system
- E . It enables you to configure applications around business groups
Which technique involves assessing potential threats through analyzing attacker capabilities, motivations, and potential targets?
- A . Threat modeling
- B . Vulnerability assessment
- C . Incident response
- D . Risk assessment
A
Explanation:
Threat modeling is the technique used to assess potential threats by analyzing attacker capabilities, motivations, and potential targets. It involves identifying, understanding, and prioritizing potential security threats in the context of a system or application. By considering the attackers’ possible objectives and methods, organizations can design security controls to mitigate these risks proactively.
Vulnerability assessment focuses on identifying and evaluating vulnerabilities in a system, but it does not explicitly analyze attacker behavior or motivations. Incident response involves responding to security incidents after they occur, not proactively assessing potential threats. Risk assessment involves evaluating potential risks to an organization, but threat modeling specifically focuses on understanding and mitigating potential threats, making it a more targeted technique for this purpose.
What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?
- A . Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.
- B . Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.
- C . Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.
- D . Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.
- E . Both B and D.