Check Point 156-215.81.20 Practice Exams
Last updated on Oct 22,2026- Exam Code: 156-215.81.20
- Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20
- Certification Provider: Check Point
- Latest update: Oct 22,2026
When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:
- A . Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.
- B . Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.
- C . There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.
- D . SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.
D
Explanation:
When logging in for the first time to a Security Management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the SmartConsole cache and is available for future Security Management Server authentications. The fingerprint is a unique identifier of the Security Management Server that is used to verify its identity and prevent man-in-the-middle attacks. The SmartConsole cache is a local folder on the client machine that stores temporary files and settings.
Reference: Check Point Security Management Administration Guide R81, p. 25-26
What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?
- A . To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base
- B . To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports
- C . To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database
- D . To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway
A
Explanation:
The purpose of the Clean-up Rule is to log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base78. The Clean-up Rule is the last rule in the rulebase and is used to drop and log explicitly unmatched traffic97. To improve the rulebase performance, noise traffic that is logged in the Clean-up rule should be included in the Noise rule so it is matched and dropped higher up in the rulebase8. The other options are not valid purposes of the Clean-up Rule.
Reference: Using Intune device cleanup rules, Security policy fundamentals, Support, Support Requests, Training, Documentation, and Knowledge base for Check Point products and services
Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.
- A . Shared secret
- B . Certificate
- C . One-time password
- D . Token
A
Explanation:
The answer is A because an identity server uses a shared secret for user authentication. A shared secret is a passphrase that is known by both the identity server and the user. The identity server sends a challenge to the user, who encrypts it with the shared secret and sends it back. The identity server then verifies the response and authenticates the user12
Reference: Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide, Check Point R81 Identity Server
Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?
- A . 3DES
- B . AES-128
- C . DES
- D . AES-256
C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because DES (Data Encryption Standard) is the least secured encryption algorithm among the options given. DES uses a 56-bit key, which is too short and can be easily cracked by brute force attacks1. DES also suffers from other weaknesses, such as weak keys, complementation property, and linear cryptanalysis2.
The other answers are not correct because they are more secured encryption algorithms than DES. 3DES (Triple DES) is an improvement over DES that applies DES three times with different keys, resulting in a 168-bit key3. AES-128 and AES-256 are variants of AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) that use 128-bit and 256-bit keys respectively. AES is considered to be the most secure symmetric encryption algorithm and is widely used for data protection.
What is DES encryption, and why was it replaced?
Data Encryption Standard – Wikipedia
What is 3DES encryption?
[What is AES encryption and how does it work?]
The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways.
Which statement best describes this Secure Internal Communication (SIC)?
- A . After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA.
- B . Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.
- C . A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS ICA.
- D . New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.
A
Explanation:
The statement that best describes Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is: After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA. SIC is a mechanism that ensures secure communication between Check Point components by using certificates that are issued by an Internal Certificate Authority (ICA)3. The other statements are not accurate descriptions of SIC.
Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?
- A . Password
- B . Certificate
- C . Token
- D . Pre-shared secret
B
Explanation:
Certificate is the most secure means of authentication among the given options2. A certificate is a digital document that contains information about the identity of a user or a device, and is signed by a trusted authority. A certificate can be used to prove the identity of a user or a device without revealing any sensitive information, such as passwords or tokens. Password, token, and pre-shared secret are less secure means of authentication because they can be easily compromised, stolen, or guessed by attackers.
Reference: Secure User Authentication Methods – freeCodeCamp.org, What is the Most Secure Authentication Method for Your Organization …
Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?
- A . Network Bandwidth Saturation
- B . Buffer Overflow
- C . SYN Flood
- D . SQL Injection
A
Explanation:
A firewall can NOT prevent a network bandwidth saturation attack, which is a type of denial-of-service (DoS) attack that aims to consume all the available bandwidth of a target network or device1, p. 9. A firewall can prevent other types of attacks, such as buffer overflow, SYN flood, and SQL injection, by inspecting packets and applying security rules2, p. 11-12.
Reference: Check Point CCSA – R81: Practice Test & Explanation, 156-315.81 Checkpoint Exam Info and Free Practice Test
There are four policy types available for each policy package.
What are those policy types?
- A . Access Control, Threat Prevention, Mobile Access and HTTPS Inspection
- B . Access Control, Custom Threat Prevention, Autonomous Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection
- C . There are only three policy types: Access Control, Threat Prevention and NAT.
- D . Access Control, Threat Prevention, NAT and HTTPS Inspection
D
Explanation:
The four policy types available for each policy package are Access Control, Threat Prevention, NAT, and HTTPS Inspection. Access Control is the policy type that defines the basic firewall rules. Threat Prevention is the policy type that enables the protection against various types of attacks, such as IPS, Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, etc. NAT is the policy type that defines the network address translation
rules. HTTPS Inspection is the policy type that allows the inspection of encrypted traffic1. The other options are not valid policy types for each policy package.
You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information.
What is the MOST likely reason?
- A . Identity Awareness is not enabled.
- B . Log Trimming is enabled.
- C . Logging has disk space issues
- D . Content Awareness is not enabled.
D
Explanation:
Extended Log is a tracking option that enables administrators to see additional information about the traffic that matches a security rule, such as data type, file name, file size, etc. However, to see any data type information, Content Awareness must be enabled on the Security Gateway. Content Awareness is a blade that inspects files based on their type, size, name, and data. Content Awareness is required for Extended Log to work properly3.
Reference: Check Point R81 Content Awareness Administration Guide
What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?
- A . RFC 1939
- B . RFC 1950
- C . RFC 1918
- D . RFC 793
C
Explanation:
The RFC number that acts as a best practice guide for NAT is RFC 1918. RFC 1918 defines a range of private IP addresses that are not globally routable and can be used for internal networks. NAT is a technique that maps these private IP addresses to public IP addresses that can communicate with the Internet. RFC 1918 provides guidelines and recommendations for using NAT in different scenarios and environments.
Reference: [RFC 1918], [Network Address Translation (NAT)]